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Question
Topic: Bacterial Infection 2016-08-08
Difficulty: Easy
Author:  Rohit Inder Singh, MD - Medical microbiology fellow, NorthShore University HealthSystem/ University of Chicago
Question Type: Multiple Possible Answers
Please Select ALL Correct Answers

A 55 year old man with history of breast carcinoma, lymphoma, and splenectomy presents to the Emergency Department with a one day history of severe nausea, vomiting, and upper abdominal pain. He has no complaints of cough, chest pain, shortness of breath, sore throat, muscle aches, urinary symptoms or joint pains. The patient denies any known sick contacts. There is history of recent travel to South Carolina for business in the last two weeks but he reports no outdoor activities. The patient does not recall any tick/insect bites. Besides his pet dog, there is no history of animal exposure.  Physical examination reveals hypotension, fever, and a possible tick/insect bite lesion on his right thigh, but no rash.

Blood cultures are collected and sent to the microbiology laboratory. The anaerobic culture bottle flags positive on the second day and a Gram stain is performed which reveals thin Gram negative. Molecular method (Verigene®  Gram negative blood culture test) fails to identify the organism and  aerobic and aerobic subcultures do not reveal growth.  16S rRNA sequencing is performed on the positive blood culture specimen and the organism is identified as Capnocytophaga canimorsus.

Based on the above history and organism identification which of the following is most accurate statement? (Multiple possible answers could be correct)
Infection by Capnocytophaga canimorsus is an unlikely cause of the patient’s symptoms and an likely represents a contaminant. 
The absence of a spleen in this patient is a likely contributing factor towards acquisition of infection by this organism.
 The patient likely acquired this pathogen through a tick bite.
The patient could have acquired the pathogen from his dog.

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